Name: 
 

AP Ecology Unit Practice Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals?
A)
water
B)
wind
C)
temperature
D)
rocks and soil
E)
disturbances
 

 2. 

Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?
A)
sunlight
B)
precipitation
C)
day length
D)
ocean currents
E)
salinity
 

 3. 

Polar regions are cooler than the equator because
A)
there is more ice at the poles.
B)
sunlight strikes the poles at an oblique angle.
C)
the poles are farther from the sun.
D)
the poles have a thicker atmosphere.
E)
the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.
 

 4. 

Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates?
A)
a discarded soft-drink can
B)
a tree
C)
a fallen log
D)
a stone
E)
all of the above
 

 5. 

The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by
A)
whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B)
their tolerance to shade.
C)
their seed dispersal rate.
D)
their size.
E)
their growth rate.
 

 6. 

Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)?
A)
pelagic
B)
abyssal
C)
neritic
D)
continental shelf
E)
intertidal
 

 7. 

You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best biome in which to conduct such a study is
A)
mountains.
B)
an intertidal zone.
C)
a river.
D)
tropical forest.
E)
an eutrophic lake.
 

 8. 

Which of the following terrestrial biomes is (are) adapted to frequent fires?
A)
savanna
B)
chaparral
C)
temperate grasslands
D)
only A and B
E)
A, B, and C
 

 9. 

A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and thrust their abdomens through the fabric of the cage. Which of the following best describes the reason for this behavior?
A)
The males learn to associate the sound with females.
B)
Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it.
C)
The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to sting it.
D)
The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic.
E)
Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation.
 

 10. 

A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a behavior that is difficult to modify through later experiences is called
A)
insight.
B)
imprinting.
C)
habituation.
D)
operant conditioning.
E)
trial-and-error learning.
 

 11. 

You turn on a light and observe cockroaches scurrying to dark hiding places. What have you observed?
A)
taxis
B)
learned behavior
C)
migration
D)
visual communication
E)
operant conditioning
 

 12. 

Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation of migratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way to proceed is to
A)
observe different genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratory habits.
B)
perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratory behavior.
C)
bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become restless and attempt to migrate.
D)
perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe offspring migratory behavior.
E)
All of the above are equally productive ways to approach the question.
 
 
Below is a list of signal types that animals use for communication. Choose the one that best fits the criteria in the following questions.

A)
olfactory
B)
visual
C)
auditory
D)
tactile
E)
electrical
 

 13. 

A long-lasting signal that works at night.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 14. 

A brief signal that can work at night or among obstructions.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 15. 

A fast signal that requires daylight and no obstructions.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 16. 

Which of the following is least related to the others?
A)
agonistic behavior
B)
cognitive maps
C)
dominance hierarchy
D)
ritual
E)
territory
 

 17. 

To measure the population density of monarch butterflies occupying a particular park, 100 butterflies are captured, marked with a small dot on a wing, and then released. The next day, another 100 butterflies are captured, including the recapture of 20 marked butterflies. One would estimate the population to be
A)
200.
B)
500.
C)
1,000.
D)
10,000.
E)
900,000.
 

 18. 

Which of the following aspects of an organism's life is least relevant to its life history?
A)
number of offspring per reproductive bout
B)
age at which it first reproduces
C)
frequency of reproduction
D)
frequency of dispersal
E)
all of the above
 

 19. 

A small population of white-footed mice has the same intrinsic rate of increase (r) as a large population. If everything else is equal,
A)
the large population will add more individuals per unit time.
B)
the small population will add more individuals per unit time.
C)
the two populations will add equal numbers of individuals per unit time.
D)
the J-shaped growth curves will look identical.
E)
the growth trajectories of the two populations will proceed in opposite directions.
 

 20. 

In the logistic equation dN/dt = rN, ap_ecology_practice_files/i0220000.jpg, r is a measure of the population's intrinsic rate of increase. It is determined by which of the following?
A)
birth rate
B)
death rate
C)
density
D)
A and B only
E)
A, B, and C
 

 21. 

In which of the following habitats would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals?
A)
an abandoned field in Ohio
B)
the sand dunes south of Lake Michigan
C)
the rain forests of Brazil
D)
south Florida after a hurricane
E)
a newly emergent volcanic island
 

 22. 

All of the following characteristics are typical of an r-selected population except
A)
occurrence in variable environments.
B)
high intrinsic rate of growth.
C)
onset of reproduction at an early age.
D)
extensive parental care of offspring.
E)
occurrence in open habitats.
 

 23. 

Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations?
A)
offspring with good chances of survival
B)
many offspring per reproductive episode
C)
small offspring
D)
a high intrinsic rate of increase
E)
early parental reproduction
 

 24. 

Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?
A)
social pressure for birth control
B)
earthquakes
C)
plagues
D)
famines
E)
pollution
 

 25. 

Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest fraction of people in which age range?
A)
50 to 60 years
B)
40 to 50 years
C)
30 to 40 years
D)
20 to 30 years
E)
10 to 20 years
 
 
The following questions refer to the figure below, which depicts the age structure of three populations.

ap_ecology_practice_files/i0280000.jpg
 

 26. 

Which population is in the process of decreasing?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
I and II
E)
II and III
 

 27. 

Which population appears to be stable?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
I and II
E)
II and III
 

 28. 

Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, in which population is unemployment likely to be most severe in the future?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
No differences in the magnitude of future unemployment would be expected among these populations.
E)
It is not possible to infer anything about future social conditions from age-structure diagrams.
 

 29. 

Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population is likely to experience zero population growth (ZPG)?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
I and II
E)
II and III
 

 30. 

Which of the following statements is consistent with the competitive exclusion principle?
A)
Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
B)
The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
C)
Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
D)
Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of inferior species.
E)
Evolution tends to increase competition between related species.
 

 31. 

The presence of all of the following tend to increase species diversity except
A)
competitive exclusion.
B)
keystone predators.
C)
patchy environments.
D)
moderate disturbances.
E)
migration of populations.
 

 32. 

According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same
A)
habitat.
B)
niche.
C)
territory.
D)
range.
E)
biome.
 

 33. 

The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its
A)
habitat.
B)
logistic growth.
C)
biotic potential.
D)
microclimax.
E)
ecological niche.
 

 34. 

All of the following describe possible results of competition between two species except
A)
competitive exclusion.
B)
aposematic coloration.
C)
resource partitioning.
D)
reduction in the population of one species.
E)
reduction in the populations of both species.
 

 35. 

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?
A)
stripes of a skunk
B)
eye color in humans
C)
green color of a plant
D)
colors of an insect-pollinated flower
E)
a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf
 

 36. 

Which of the following is not an example of a plant defense against herbivory?
A)
nicotine
B)
cryptic coloration
C)
spines
D)
thorns
E)
strychnine
 

 37. 

Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction?
A)
mutualism
B)
commensalism
C)
parasitism
D)
competition
E)
predation
 

 38. 

To measure species diversity in a community, you need to know
A)
the number of species.
B)
the relative abundance of each species.
C)
the physical size of each species.
D)
both A and B
E)
A, B, and C
 

 39. 

Which of the following statements about communities is not correct?
A)
Many plant species in communities seem to be independently distributed.
B)
Some animal species distributions within a community are linked to other species.
C)
The distribution of almost all organisms is probably affected, to some extent, by both abiotic gradients and interactions with other species.
D)
Ecologists refer to species richness as the number of species within a community.
E)
The trophic structure of a community describes abiotic factors such as rainfall and temperature affecting members of the community.
 

 40. 

Prairie dogs once covered the expanses of the Great Plains. Their grazing made the grass more nutritious for the huge herds of bison, and a variety of snakes, raptors, and mammals preyed on the rodents. In fact, the black-footed ferret (now endangered) specialized in prairie dog predation. Today, growing neighborhoods have covered many prairie dog towns. Which of the following statements about prairie dogs is not true?
A)
Their realized niche has diminished.
B)
They are commensals with bison.
C)
They are reasonably considered a keystone species.
D)
Their fundamental niche remains unaltered.
E)
Their fundamental niche has diminished.
 

 41. 

Which of the following members of a marine food chain is most analogous to a grasshopper in a terrestrial food chain?
A)
phytoplankton
B)
zooplankton
C)
detritivore
D)
fish
E)
shark
 

 42. 

According to the nonequilibrium model,
A)
communities will remain in a state of equilibrium in the absence of human activities.
B)
community structure remains constant in the absence of interspecific competition.
C)
communities are assemblages of closely linked species that function as tightly integrated units.
D)
interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time.
E)
communities are constantly changing because of disturbances.
 

 43. 

You are most likely to observe primary succession when you visit a(n)
A)
tropical rain forest.
B)
abandoned field.
C)
old riverbed.
D)
fairly recent volcanic island.
E)
deep sea vent.
 
 
Refer to the list of terms below to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A.
parasitism
B.
mutualism
C.
inhibition
D.
facilitation
E.
commensalism
 

 44. 

the relationship between ants and acacia trees
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 45. 

the relationship between legumes and nitrogen-fixing bacteria
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 46. 

successional event in which one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 47. 

the relationship between the larvae of small wasps and caterpillars
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
E)
E
 

 48. 

To recycle nutrients, the minimum an ecosystem must have is
A)
producers.
B)
producers and decomposers.
C)
producers, primary consumers, and decomposers.
D)
producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers.
E)
producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers.
 

 49. 

Production, consumption, and decomposition are important ecosystem processes. Which of the following could be decomposers?
A)
bacteria
B)
vertebrates
C)
invertebrates
D)
A and C only
E)
A, B, and C
 

 50. 

Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity?
A)
the energy contained in the standing crop
B)
the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration
C)
the energy used by autotrophs in respiration
D)
the energy fixed by photosynthesis
E)
all solar energy
 

 51. 

The difference between net and gross primary productivity would likely be greatest for
A)
phytoplankton in the ocean.
B)
corn plants in a farmer's field.
C)
prairie grasses.
D)
an oak tree in a forest.
E)
sphagnum moss in a bog.
 

 52. 

If you wanted to convert excess grain into the greatest amount of animal biomass, to which animal would you feed the grain?
A)
chickens
B)
mice
C)
cattle
D)
carp (a type of fish)
E)
mealworms (larval insects)
 

 53. 

Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems?
A)
Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.
B)
Most predators require large home ranges.
C)
Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems.
D)
Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.
E)
Each energy transfer is less than 100% efficient.
 

 54. 

Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of
A)
ammonium.
B)
nitrite.
C)
nitrate.
D)
A and C only
E)
A, B, and C
 

 55. 

If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain from seaweeds to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following is true?
A)
Polar bears can provide more food for people than seals can.
B)
The total energy content of the seaweeds is lower than that of the seals.
C)
Polar bear meat probably contains the highest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins.
D)
Seals are more numerous than fish.
E)
The carnivores can provide more food for people than the herbivores can.
 



 
Check Your Work     Reset Help